The Harmonograph Lie: Stephen E. Robbins on Bergson memory and simultaneity part 2

Kent A. Peacock, Professor of philosophy of physics:

There is a subtle fact about relative velocities that is not always explicitly mentioned in books on relativity, and a failure to grasp this subtle fact may be a cause of some of the confusion about superluminal motion. In special relativity all velocities (except for the velocity of light itself) are relative, including zero and infinite velocity....Dainton, et. al., possibly have confused the invariant fact that any superluminal propagation has infinite velocity relative to one frame (which one depends on the spacetime trajectory of the superluminal effect) with the notion (not correct) that any superluminal propagation would be invariantly infinite for all frames....Thus, there certainly is a theory that allows for influences which are instantaneous in one frame and finite (though superluminal) in all others; it is called 'special relativity.'...instantaneous in their mutual rest frame....Whether or not the local clock readings are equal at A and B is therefore independent of whether or not A and B are at the same global time coordinate in some inertial frame or other....Einstein's way of defining time-coordinate simultaneity neither assumes nor requires that light signals be either the fastest or the only way of communicating between distant events; it's only about what can be accomplished with light signals....an obvious candidate is phase: it is far more natural to think of wave functions as reducing over hypersurfaces of constant phase, and this automatically gives a covariant picture; ...While relativity is far more amenable to superluminal influences than has been generally supposed, ultimately it is classical relativity that must adapt itself to the quantum....Bohm and Hiley themselves were not comfortable with theories like de Broglie's later approach because such theories imply that any particle interacts via a four-dimensional wave field with other particles both past and future throughout spacetime....Thus, Bohm and Hiley rejected covariant pictures of nonlocality (such as de Broglie's) not because they are technically out of the question, but because they tend to violate classical expectations or intuitions about causality....while such a theory would do violence to classical intuitions (prejudices?) about the proper order of cause and effect it is quite likely that it would not allow for outright logical paradoxes of the kind that worried Bohm and Hiley....what is not speculative is that (as the example of de Broglie's theory shows) it is not necessarily the case that any account of quantum mechanics in terms of more general physical principles would demand the return to Galilean covariance and a preferred frame;

2013, emphasis in original, "Would superluminal influences violate the principle of relativity"


Building on this previous blog post on Kent Peacock and nonlocal spin sound

So how does this relate to the Music Theory Model of Reality?

A four-dimension wave model based on momentum-energy means that there is a wave both for a particle and the anti-particle that is negative mass.

So the negative mass with subwavelength of light has to be pure frequency-time without actual positive wavelength as amplitude. Normally in physics the amplitudes of negative and positive mass would cancel out but with de Broglie's model momentum is not conserved since it is nonlinear and noncommutative.

So this means again if we say 1 is a frequency then as a particle it has a wavelength - and in terms of music we can call this say a string on a lyre that is plucked or a tube of a pipe that is blown to make a sound called 1 frequency as the root tonic. This is how it is defined in the Harmonic Series. You start with the One and then add fractions of wavelength for increased frequency.

So then if 1 is C as the root tonic and 2 is the octave as C now we have 2 particles but the problem is the first one is infinite frequency since the inverse is equal to itself - there is no boundary condition for the sound. And so the octave wavelength is half of what boundary? Since we can HEAR and LISTEN to sound we do not challenge this issue yet and we continue listening and studying the sound based on pure number.

The problem complicates itself when we say the next harmonic is 3 as the Perfect Fifth or 3/1 frequency with 1/3 as the wavelength and in relation to the octave it is then 3/2 frequency and 2/3 wavelength. This is the same Pitch as the Perfect Fifth since 2 is the same pitch of C as 1.

So far so good in terms of listening to sound as harmonics but if we sing a sound we can also produce undertones - this is called throat singing - in which case the inverse occurs - the frequency is now 2/3 as C to F subharmonic with the wavelength as 3/2 and since the phase shift from the octave is the same then the Pitch is the same music interval as the Perfect Fifth. And so since it is a different frequency it will also have a different amplitude as wavelength but since it is the same pitch interval as the Perfect Fifth, even though the visual image changes, our Ear does not hear a difference.

Let us draw up a fundamental vibration with its first and second harmonic overtones [1:2 and 2:3]….if we then shift the phase relationship, we get a totally different course of the combined curve; that is, of the pressure course [amplitude and frequency] which is apparently effective in the final analysis. When looking at both curves, one might suppose that in the two cases we should hear two sounds that are just as different. But in fact our ear does not notice any difference.biophysicist Vitus B. Dröscher states in his book, Magic of the Senses, p. 168

 So we have just established that listening is faster than time-frequency uncertainty because in physics we see a difference in amplitude due to the phase shift but with meditation as listening we can convert the "yin" of the C to F undertone harmonic into the "yang" as C to G overtone harmonic since they are the same pitch as 2/3 which is yang as rajas. In other words it is only by defining the sound as a physical wavelength that we try to line up with the octave that problems start to arise.

Keep in mind that in quantum physics Heisenberg's Uncertainty can be reduced to time-frequency uncertainty defined as time x frequency is greater than 1/2. But based on the phase shift as pure energy or frequency-time as listenining - the 3rd harmonic is faster than Fourier Uncertainty and so harmonizes instantly - as noncommutative phase with G=3=F at the same time!

“The phase, distinct from the energy, can travel faster than light.”
Emilio Del Guidice

If we try to line up the wavelength and frequency as a physical boundary condition of the octave then problems arise. Now notice I said listening to pure number - so the Overtone harmonic was 3/2 and 2/3 based on 3 being in resonance to the 1 and so in reality the overtone harmonic is 3 to 1. And so now suddenly we run into problems. If you look at how people define the overtone harmonics they will try to fudge this truth and try to claim that the overtone harmonics are the ratios between the numbers - and not just number as a fraction of the 1. In math the harmonic series is defined as based on 1 as pure number but in physics we need a physical wavelength and so it is defined as the ratio of numbers.

So here we have the Harmonic Series correctly defined as Number and so we can not say that 4/3 is part of the harmonic series because 1 is not the same pitch as 3 where as 2 is the same pitch as 3. So it is o.k. to say that 3/2 is the Perfect Fifth harmonic but in fact we are actually saying that 2 is the same as 1 based on the root tonic pitch and we are not saying it is a ratio to 2.

So Wikipedia has the harmonic series incorrectly defined as the ratios and so uses the lie of 4/3 as part of the harmonic series when it is Not!

And we find this same lie in the Harmonograph book that I mentioned yesterday.

So here in a rare moment of honesty someone realizes that the Perfect Fourth is a "phantom tonic."

Nicolas Slonimsky once pointed out, in an effort to dissuade readers from the idea that Western tonality is the inevitable result of how we hear (as opposed to a largely artificial invention), that no matter how high one goes in the harmonic series, a fundamental pitch will not produce a perfect fourth above the fundamental.

So how can Wiki just say that the Perfect Fourth is part of the Harmonic Series? Because people get taught basic music theory as a lie! And so what really happened is that music theory actually created the Greek Miracle as the continuum of symmetric logarithmic mathematics so that the ratio could be switched around without changing the frequency and wavelength! This means that in physics the wavelength is defined by the square root - not as it is defined in the harmonic series!!

And so to create the square root - what Philolaus did was double the octave and then state that the root tonic is now 0 to 8 so that 6/8 is 3/4 wavelength with 4/3 frequency. But the original "fundamental pitch" was 0 to 12 and so the octave as 2 was at 1/2 wavelength of 6. So to create geometric magnitude for logarithms then the frequency is 8/12 wavelength as 3/2 frequency and then 8/6 wavelength as 4/3 frequency so that you get the geometric magnitude of the Octave as 12 to 6 wavelength with frequency of 2.

The problem with this is that 8 is 2/3 of 12 not 3/4 of 12 and so if you have the octave at 6 then 8 is not 3/4. The other problem is that as is the case with bait and switch - we just lost what the actual relation of music intervals are in relation to the fundamental pitch. So in other words if 2/3 of 1 is C to F as subharmonic frequency then 2/3 of 12 is frequency 3/2 as C to G. And so 3/4 as wavelength of 6/8 of root tonic 0 to 8 is actually the pitch of C to G. Or the other way to think of this is that Philolaus had to flip the Lyre around since 3/4 as 6/8 is in one direction of 0 to 8 while 8/6 is based on the geometric magnitude of 12 to 6 in the other direction.

So to claim that the Harmonic Series has 4/3 as the Perfect Fourth means to claim that the root tonic has changed - the "fundamental pitch." And another way to say this is that in fact listening as pure time-frequency is faster than measuring wavelength as a ratio to momentum, since in quantum physics momentum is directly proportional to wavelength. And so by changing the direction of infinity the "boundary condition" is ignored as actually being 2/3 in one direction (0 to 8) and 1/2 in the other direction (12 to 6).

And by ignoring that inherent noncommutative phase of time-frequency then the symmetric logarithms can be created with 3/2 x 3/4 as 9/8. That is defined as a pure ratio when in fact the Perfect Fifth is ALSO 2/3 not just 3/2 in which case you don't get 9/8. So 2/3 x 3/4 is 6/12 as the octave. but the Pitch was the same - is the Difference of a Fifth minus a Fourth as subharmonic Pitch an Octave or is the Difference (multiplying the inverse since subtraction is division) the major tone 9/8?

So ONLY by ignoring the fact that the Perfect Fifth is also 2/3 frequency and not just 3/2 frequency are we able to say that Perfect Fifth minus the Perfect Fourth equals the Major Tone of 9/8. So this proves that 9/8 inherently is based on logarithms that is based on a "bait and switch" LIE of changing the direction of the root tonic boundary conditions.

Whereas with pure listening in meditation we have the Law of Phase Harmony of de Broglie satisfied.

So then I was asked how the yin of 3/4 as C to F harmonic pitch of the Pythagorean Tetrad changes into 2/3 as the Yang perfect Fifth - how does this happen in Indian music with the Perfect Fifth as rajas?

perfect fourth not part of the harmonic series

When we search that phrase we get a book on Rags of North Indian music.

And so the 2nd overtone is actually the 3rd harmonic - the 2nd overtone is G but is the third harmonic since the 1st harmonic is the same overtone as C.

So if we search Perfect Fourth is not part of the harmonic series - we get the Rags of North Indian Music but we don't get any immediate answer from Western music theory!

So we have to search Perfect Fourth is not part of the Overtone Series! And we still get a contradictory result!

Notice it says overtones base on the HARMONICS of C. So is it a Harmonic Series or an Overtone Series?

This is from a music theory discussion

The person was told that in counterpoint the Perfect Fourth is considered dissonant since if the Overtone of G is in 2nd inversion as a G chord then because the G, a Perfect Fifth overtone as 3 to 1, is not a Perfect Fourth to the octave C as G to C then it wants to resolve DOWN to a new root tonic of the F note.

So take C major triad. It has notes C E G. 2nd inversion is G C E, with G to C forming a 4th. Because 4ths have a tendency to resolve down by step (so-called Fa-to-Mi resolution), this would apparently result in a GSus4 sort of sound with listener expecting it to resolve to plain old G triad.

This is what I called in my master's thesis the "paradox of the Poles" because the overtone harmonics of the Perfect Fifth and Perfect Fourth actually create a tritone relationship in Western tuning - and the Tritone as the Devil's Interval has no beats even though it is the most dissonant note. And then the octave has the MOST beats, as Sir James Jeans points out - even though it is the most harmonic pitch with the same pitch as a different ratio then 1 to 1.

OK so now reading the Indian music theory book it says how you do get the overtone as the major third just by plucking the 1 string - as a harmonic to itself but you do NOT get the Perfect Fourth. And so it emphasizes we do not need to refer to Western music theory to derive the major third.

But on the Perfect Fourth it notes this irony:

Ma [Perfect Fourth], although consonant to Sa (root tonic), is alien to the overtone series and is not evoked in the sound of Sa. On the other hand, Sa is evoked in the sound of Ma, since Sa is a fifth above Ma and is its second overtone.

So in the West the music was defined by the harmonic ratios to the string whereas in India they still rely on the overtones of the sound and in singing there are not just overtones but also undertones. Whereas in the West it was assumed that undertones do not exist!

Undertone series - Wikipedia

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Undertone_series

While overtones naturally occur with the physical production of music on instruments, undertones must be produced in unusual ways

Really? they are a natural product of throat singing harmonics created by increased vagus nerve activation through internal listening to ultrasound! So is that unusual? Not if you define Sound as a drone or meditation mantra as Japa.

O.K. so I just did a long article on Blue Light and Blues Music - and I argued that the undertone F was actually a blue light spacetime shift from meditation as quantum biology. Let's see what the Indian music theory book says if we continue where the quote above left off:

For this reason it can be argued that the tendency to view Ma [the Perfect Fourth] as the ground-note has a 'natural' basis. The same cannot be said for Pa as Sa is not part of its overtone series.

Now what the author maybe does not realize is that they just defined the secret of OM as a metaphysics. In other words if you take a very strong dose of DMT-based plant medicine while in padmasana full lotus you will hear a loud OM naturally and spontaneously emitted from your heart due to the conversion and ionization of serotonin into biophoton energy as a deep vagus nerve reaction. Or in other words with deep vagus nerve reaction from medtation on the Hypersonic Effect of ultrasound of natural harmonics is it the UNDERTONE that is the new root tonic as the low OM sound of the Universe. This is what Andrija Puharich called his Hydron-Phonon Effect since the ultrasound harmonically splits the water to create a proton-electron sideband subharmonic in the ELF frequency - and it is this ELF frequency that creates a standing wave with the Earth's energy as the Schumann frequency. In other words the subharmonic is actually a REVERSE TIME phase shift as a precessional wobble or magnetic moment that is superluminal - it is the spin 1/2 of the quanta.

O.K. so how does the Indian music theory book explain this paradox. I have called this the Hempel Effect based on the Magic of the Senses book - we have a phase shift and yet the Pitch as Perfect Fifth remains the SAME - therefore we are transforming the subharmonic into the overtone harmonic or transforming C to F subharmonic with a difference of frequency and amplitude (wavelength) INTO the C to G overtone harmonic. But what is not realized by Droscher is that if the Ear does not hear the difference this is ONLY because the One as spacetime (wavelength boundary condition) ALSO changed - so that F is the new root tonic.

Or to put this in Pythagorean terms - ONE is not a number but rather is  LIGHT as consciousness with OM or APEIRON as its secret formless source as consciousness that guides the light of the One. Therefore Number as One is actually both odd and even at the same time as Light - but not as the One as the wavelength with harmonic ratio of 2 as pitch - since that inherently has a phase shift that creates 3 and from 3 then infinity is created in both matter and energy.

The thesis can be expressed in the following way: If two drones either a fourth or fifth apart are sounded, one of these will 'naturally' sound like the primary drone. It is not always the lower of the two which will sound primary, but the one which initiates the overtone series to which the other note (or one of its octaves) belongs. By amplifying a prominent overtone the secondary drone lends support to the primary and intensifies its 'primary' character.

So if F is sounded and C is its overtone that reinforces C is the root tonic. If G is sounded and D is its overtone then in Blues music - this, as music professor Daniel Oore has pointed out - in Jazz the Perfect Fifth has the 9th of the scale as the flat note - which is to say as an overtone it is dissonant with C and so pulls stronger to the C.

This is why as a musician if we listen to overtones - we will notice that the order of the phase shift changes the  meaning of the pitch. Perfect Fifth is the same with the phase shift even though frequency and wavelength changes but it is the relation to the tonic that changes - so that a Perfect Fifth has a stronger pull to the fundamental pitch because the overtone D has as stronger means to resolve. Or for the same reason an inverted Fifth chord is actually considered a Suspended 4th chord which wants to resolve stronger to the one.

I think my favorite song of Prince - Starfish and Coffee - utilizes this secret of the chord inversion of the overtone harmonics - this is also the secret of the Phrygian Mode scale since it is raising the fourth and fifth tunings (in Wester harmonics) to increase that tritone paradox of the pole tension. The most prominent example is to use the "flat 6th" cord in blues and Jazz then for the strongest overtone resolve to the one chord - this is actually prominent in classical music as well.

But the real point is that in Western music that energy is "contained" by the square root of 2 or just the square root of the wavelength whereas in Indian and Chinese harmonics it is an infinite process as 3 in 1 unity.

So this book on Gurdjieff harmonics discusses the paradox of the Undertone in Western physics and math

So obviously for frequency and wavelength to subtract as symmetric geometric magnitude then  we have to stay consistent - meaning if the Perfect Fifth is 3/2 then we subtract by multiplying by 3/4 (the inverse of 4/3) and if the Perfect Fifth is 2/3 frequency then we subtract by multiplying by 4/3. But to get the 9/8 or 8/9 answer Philolaus had to CHANGE the physical root tonic so that in one case it is the frequency as 4/3 from 0 to 8 as the 1 or 6/8 and in the other case as geometric magnitude it is 8/6 as 3/2 wavelength of the octave so that the Perfect Fifth plus Perfect Fourth equals the octave is actually 12 to 8 as 3/2 frequency from 2/3 wavelength with 8 to 6 as 4/3 frequency with 3/4 of the wavelength of 0 to 8 NOT 0 to 6 as the octave.

So now we can go back to George Musser. What we are explaining is that de Broglie's Law of Phase Harmony means frequency is to time as momentum is to wavelength but since frequency is directly proportional to momentum this means the "negative mass" of reverse time antimatter is actually not destroyed but rather "captured" as superluminal Phonon Pressure energy.

In other words when does Number not refer to Matter? In Music and Sound.

The farther apart the keys are on a piano keyboard, the farther apart they are within this imaginary dimension; a given distance along the keyboard translates into a given distance within the dimension. You don’t see this dimension as such; to you, it’s an abstraction that captures the acoustical independence of sound waves. But it’s a remarkably fitting abstraction. Musicians call the difference between pitches a musical “interval,” which has connotations of distance, as if our brains really do think of the differences between pitches as spatial separation. AdS/CFT duality takes this abstraction literally and suggests that one of the dimensions of the space we occupy represents the energy or, equivalently, the size of waves within the underlying system.

So what Musser is talking about here - without even realizing it - is that the conversion of Pitch into geometric magnitude covered up the secret of de Broglie's Law of Phase Harmony from noncommutative time-frequency phase shift.

In the Pythagorean Tetrad this means that 3/4 wavelength as 6/8 is 4/3 frequency but 6 is also 1/2 wavelength as 2 frequency and so the One is not a number since it was 0 to 8 for 3/4 wavelength and 0 to 12 for 1/2 wavelength. So in other words noncommutative phase is nonlocal and superluminal momentum positive pressure with reverse time - it is negative frequency and reverse time as the relativity of infinity and zero that is noncommutative.

So Professor Basil J. Hiley explains to Musser:

David invented a thing called “rheomode“–language in which we speak to each other in a flowing mode. There are some ancient languages which do this–Hopi Indian and some others. In his book Wholeness and the Implicate Order, you’ll find a chapter on language, in which he discusses this rheomode. It didn’t work, because we were still thinking of objects.
GM: How does this enter into quantum mechanics?
BH: In noncommutativity.

What this means is that even speaking - the source of sound is quantum entanglement since as I corresponded with Hiley - he acknowledged noncommutative time-frequency and at time zero, based on his model, there is quantum entanglement. So time zero is saying the node is zero at the boundary conditions of the wavelength - but the phase shift for 3/4 of 0 to 8 is then a shift in order to create logarithmic geometric magnitude mathematics. The time at 0 then shifts from 8 wavelength to 12 wavelength and then REVERSES in time so that the geometric magnitude of Perfect Fifth plus Perfect can equal an Octave - meaning that the frequency of 4/3 as wavelength of 0 to 8 is now the geometric magnitude of 4/3 as 8 to 6 from the Octave geometric magnitude as 12 to 6.

And so going back to the Gurdjieff book by Mitzi DeWhitt - she reveals the alchemical secret of Plato's Timaeus - or the covering up of real alchemy!


So she quotes Plato stating

"solid bodies are always compacted not by one mean but by two, God placed water and air in the mean between fire and earth and made them the same proportion so far as was possible (as fire is to air, so is water to earth); and thus he bound and put together a visible and tangible heaven."

So that means 6 is to 8 as 9 is to 12. Seems good right? But I have just shown that for that ratio to be "bound" as geometric magnitude it means that 6 to 8 is 3/4 as 0 to 12 while 9/12 is 3/4 as 12 to 0
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

The order of infinity has been reversed and so instead of getting the Harmony of Heaven and Earth which is what Daoism and the "three gunas" and REAL Pythagorean Harmonics teaches - you get:

The Separation of Heaven and Earth as Mass ritual sacrifice of the Actual Matrix Plan based on irrational magnitude symmetric ratios or the "music logarithmic spiral."

I exposed math professor Abraham Seidenberg promoting the Separation of Heaven and Earth as irrational magnitude geometry - the "ritual origins of geometry" in Brahmin Solar altar construction. And so now we have traced it from the Brahmins to Plato.

The math is wrong and so the alchemy is wrong - Plato was against the Harmony of Heaven and Earth and FOR the "separation of heaven and earth" as mass ritual sacrifice. I have all the details from Seidenberg - in my 2012 pdf, "Alchemy of Rainbow Heart Music."